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It's a fair question. I found this rather scholarly article that is more about how to get results than about the results themselves, but it does show that pedaling is always net positive torque value...
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I don't quite see the connection with what I was asking. Or is that point related to something else?
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It would also be good to know when the unflexing happens - at minimum torque or somewhere before or after it.
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Is "when it happens" really the way to think about it? It certainly doesn't occur all at once -- we could say it begins to happen when your power decreases below its maximum, and continues to happen more as you decrease more -- and then, on into the next stroke when you begin to push harder again, the frame begins to flex again (in the direction appropriate to that stroke, of course). Insofar as the flex is a response to the power you're putting out, it will vary in tandem with that.
And clarifying things this far is making me begin to wonder if the BB swaying Mark describes as a result of non-torque pedal pressure may have to be dealt with separately. Can we conveniently separate frame flex that's a result of torque, and frame flex that's a result of non-torque forces?